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  • Name: CrystalDawn
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pattynmikeg wrote on 11/29/2012:

Hi. I left a comment on your question about babies and Heaven and I hope in some way, my answer gives you some peace.Sincerely, Patty

David Paul wrote on 02/15/2012:

I Corinthians 6:9
King James Version:
9…Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate [malakoi], nor abusers of themselves with mankind [arsenokoitai], 10 Nor thieves…, shall inherit the kingdom of God. 
New International Version
9…Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes [malakoi] nor homosexual offenders [arsenokoitai] 10 nor thieves…will inherit the kingdom of God. 

Revised Standard Version—1952 edition:

9…Do not be deceived; neither the immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homo-sexuals [malakoi and arsenokoitai], 10 nor thieves…, will inherit the kingdom of God. 

Revised Standard Version—1971 edition:

9…Do not be deceived; neither the immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor sexual perverts [malakoi and arsenokoitai], 10 nor thieves…, will inherit the kingdom of God.
A comparison of how the two Greek words are translated in the different versions shows that translations often, unfortunately, become the interpretations of the translators instead of translations (as in the NIV in the Sodom story above).  In I Cor. 6:9 Paul lists the types of persons who will be excluded from the kingdom of God and for some he uses the Greek words malakoi and arsenokoitai.  The KJV translates the first “effeminate,” a word that has no necessary connection with homosexuals.  The NIV translates the first “male prostitutes” and the second, “homosexual offenders.” The RSV in its first edition of 1952 translated both words by the single term, “homosexuals.” In the revised RSV of 1971, the translation
“homosexuals” is discarded and the two Greek words are translated as “sexual perverts”; obviously the translators had concluded that the earlier translation could not be justified.
Malakoi literally means “soft” and is translated that way by both KJ and RSV in Matt. 11:8 and Luke 7:25.  When it is used in moral contexts in Greek writings it has the meaning of morally weak; a related word, malakia, when used in moral contexts, means dissolute and occasionally refers to sexual activity but never to homosexual acts.  There are at least five Greek words that specifically mean people who practice same-gender sex.  Unquestionably, if Paul had meant such people, he would not have used a word that is never used to mean that in Greek writings when he had other words that were clear in that meaning.  He must have meant what the word commonly means in moral contexts, “morally weak.” There is no justification, most scholars agree, for translating it “homosexuals.”
Arsenokoitai, is not found in any extant Greek writings until the second century when it apparently means “pederast,” a corrupter of boys, and the sixth century when it is used for husbands practicing anal intercourse with their wives.  Again, if Paul meant people practicing same-gender sex, why didn’t he use one of the common words?  Some scholars think probably the second century use might come closest to Paul’s intention.  If so, there is no justification for translating the word as “homosexuals.”  Other scholars see a connection with Greek words used to refer to same-gender sex in Leviticus.  My discussion above shows why the Leviticus references have no relevance to homosexuality today.

One commentator has another reason for rejecting the NIV and original RSV translations, “homosexuals.”  Today it could mean that a person who is homosexual in orientation even
though “of irreproachable morals, is automatically branded as unrighteous and excluded from the kingdom of God, just as if he were the most depraved of sexual perverts.”[vii]

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